This discussion's prompted by this post, that I needed to censor, about a restauranteur who had exploited my son badly, illegaly. I named him in the post and recommended people avoid his restaurant.
Poor old James, who has to take legal responsibility for SFN, had to get me to edit it and the discussion tumbled from caterpillars on salad and recomending restaurants, into what is and isn't libelous.
So, is this correct?
Legally, in order to name M.*****, do I need to make an official complaint, take him to court first and get him prosecuted, and THEN I can give his name as the person responsible for the exploitation, but if I do it out of court before the court has decided, it counts as deformation of character?
If this is so, it's really interesting, because I have been trying to find a good reason to persuade my son that he really needs to be prosecuted.